
One like a Son of Man, Engraving by Gérard JOLLAIN, Presumably published 1670
The first main part of Matthew’s Gospel (1:1-4:16) is not, strictly speaking, a prologue. It is, more accurately, the initial phase of the story to be narrated. The major purpose of this part of Matthew’s story is to inform the reader as to who Jesus is (1: 1) . And because Matthew departs from Mark and tells first of the origins and infancy of Jesus, the reader is not introduced to John the Baptist until Chapter 3.
Jesus as the Messiah, the Son of God
Matthew writes in the opening verse that Jesus is the “Messiah, the Son of David, the Son of Abraham” (1:1) . Interestingly, Matthew omits from this pedigree his preeminent title for Jesus, that of the “Son of God.” The reason is that this latter title is of such importance that Matthew will allow no one other than God himself to be the first to utter it, at Jesus’ baptism (3: 17).
The Matthaean Jesus, therefore, is the Davidic Messiah, the royal Son of God, who descends from Abraham. For this understanding of Jesus, Matthew is basically in debt to Mark. What Matthew has done is to adopt Mark’s Christology, elaborate it, and adapt it to meet the needs of a new situation.
Matthew makes use of Christological terms with great skill in order to describe the person and mission of Jesus. The very name “Jesus,” for instance, means “God is salvation.” Matthew plays on this meaning early in his story in order to alert the reader to the nature and scope of Jesus’ mission. To Joseph the angel declares, “… you shall call his name `Jesus,’ for he shall save his people from their sins” (1:21). Salvation from sin, therefore, is what Jesus is about.
Moreover, because the personal name “Jesus” harbors within it what Matthew takes to be Jesus’ calling, he removes it from the realm of familiar usage. Thus, Bartimaeus and the two demoniacs may address Jesus by his name in Mark’s Gospel (1:24; 5:7; 10:47), but Matthew erases these touches (8:29; 20:30).
Matthew’s broad description of Jesus is that he is the “Messiah” (1 :1, 16, 17) . As the Messiah, he is the Coming One foretold by the prophets and awaited by Israel (11:2-6). Standing in the line of David (1:1, 17, 25), he brings the history of Israel to its culmination (1:1, 17). He is invested with the authority of God, and encounter with him is no idle event, for one’s salvation hinges on it (3:11; 11:2-6).
Mark makes no mention of Jesus as being the “Son of Abraham.” Matthew’s interest in this title (1: 1) is twofold. On the one hand, he is concerned to show that Jesus is the one in whom the entire history of Israel, which had its beginning in Abraham, attains to its fulfillment (1:17). On the other hand, he is concerned to present Jesus as the one in whom God makes good on the promise he gave to Abraham regarding the Gentiles (Genesis 12:3; 18:18; 22: 18: 26:4). The “many” who put their faith in him, asserts the Matthaean Jesus, “will come from east and west and sit at table with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of Heaven” (8:10-11).
Of all the evangelists, none occupies himself more with the Davidic sonship of Jesus than does Matthew. Whereas Mark and Luke, for example, employ the title Son of David only four times each. Matthew employs it no fewer than eleven times: ten times it refers to Jesus (cf. concordance); and once it refers to Joseph (“Joseph, son of David”; 1:20).
By and large, Matthew pursues two objectives in his use of the title Son of David. The one objective is simply to affirm the Davidic lineage of Jesus. Still, this is not without problems. The Matthaean genealogy of Jesus runs through Joseph (1:16). In Matthew’s eyes, therefore, Joseph is clearly a “son of David” (1:16, 20) . The problem, however, is that as Matthew presents it, Joseph is neither the physical father of Jesus (1:18, 20, 23, 25) nor does Mary stand in the line of David (1:16). This problem comes to a head in the last link of Matthew’s genealogical chain: “. . . and Jacob fathered Joseph, the husband of Mary, from whom Jesus was born, who is called the Messiah” (1:16).
But if Joseph is not really the father of Jesus and his mother Mary is not from the house of David, how can Jesus legitimately be said to be the “Son of David”? In his pericope on the origin of the Messiah, Matthew gives his answer to this question (1:18-25) . It is that Jesus, miraculously conceived by the Holy Spirit (1:18, 20), receives his name from Joseph (1:25). What this means, in turn, is that Matthew’s solution to the problem of Jesus’ genealogy is that he can legitimately be called the Son of David because Joseph son of David adopts him into his line (cf. 13:55: “Is not this the son of the carpenter?”).
The second objective Matthew pursues with his Son-of-David Christology is that of focusing on the guilt that is Israel’s for not receiving its Messiah. As the Son of David, Jesus is promised and sent specifically to Israel (1:1; 15:22-24; 21:5, 9; 22:42). Through individual acts of healing, he demonstrates this. These acts extend to such persons as the following: two “blind men” (9:27-31), a “blind and dumb man” (12:22) , the “daughter” of a Gentile woman (15: 21-28), two more “blind men” (20:29-34), and the “blind and lame” in the temple (21:14). What is noteworthy about these persons is that they are the ones who count for nothing in Israel, which is likewise true of the “children” who hail Jesus as the Son of David in the temple (21:5) and the Canaanite “woman” who pleads the cause of her daughter (15:21-22).
Now these “no-accounts,” or those who assist them, acknowledge in the attitude of faith that Jesus is the Son of David. The irony is that in so doing, they “see” and “confess” what the leaders of Israel and the crowds do not. When the leaders of Israel, for example, witness the healing activity of Jesus Son of David, this only provokes them to anger (21: 15 ) or motivates them to charge him with being an emissary of Satan (9:32-34; 12:22-24). For their part, the crowds at least pose the question as to whether Jesus is the Son of David (12:23). But the manner in which they frame it anticipates, in the Greek original, a negative reply (12:23).
And when Jesus enters Jerusalem and the crowds do hail him as the Son of David, they explain that this means no more than that he is “the prophet … from Nazareth” (21 :9-11 ). Consequently, by contrasting sharply the reception of Jesus as the Son of David by certain “no-accounts” with Israel’s refusal to acknowledge him as such. Matthew calls attention to the guilt that accrues to Israel for its blindness.
But although Matthew strongly affirms the Davidic sonship of Jesus Messiah, Jesus is more for him than merely the Son of David. For Mark, too, of course the latter is also true. But whereas Mark does not squarely address this issue until the pericope on the question about David’s son in Chapter 12 (cf. Matt. 22:41-46). Matthew addresses it already in this first part of his Gospel. His theological position, like that of Mark, is that Jesus is preeminently the “Son of God.” But while this title is rich in content for both Mark and Matthew, the chief emphasis is not the same. In oversimplified terms, what it says of Jesus in Mark’s story is that he is the royal Messiah who dies upon the cross (14:35-36; 15:39; cf. 12:1-12; 16:6). What it says of Jesus in Matthew’s story is that he is “Emmanuel,” the royal Messiah in whom God draws near to abide with his people (1:23; 18:20; 28:20).
As early as 1: 16, Matthew alludes to the divine sonship of Jesus. He casts the verb “to be born” in the passive voice, in this way alerting the reader to special activity on the part of God: ‘Jesus is born [by an act of God)." This verb, in turn, points forward to the passive participle "that which is conceived" in 1:20. This, too, alludes to divine activity, and is embedded in the pericope on the origin of Jesus (1: 18-25). In this pericope, Matthew states less cryptically that Mary's conception is "by the Holy Spirit" (1:18, 20), that God through the prophet discloses the true significance of the person of her son ("God with us," 1:22-23), that Mary is a "virgin" when she bears him (1:23) , and that the child cannot be from Joseph because Joseph makes no attempt to have relations with Mary until after she has given birth to her son (1:25). Taken together, the intention of these terms and statements is clear: Matthew asserts that Jesus, born of Mary, is nevertheless the Son of God, for his origin is in God.
In Chapter 2, Matthew continues his description of the person of Jesus. The Magi arrive in Jerusalem and ask where the newborn "King of the Jews" is to be found (2:2). Herod responds by designating this king as the "Messiah" (2:4). His mistaken notion of the Messiah, however, is that he will seize his throne (2:3, 13). By drawing on the OT, Matthew shows that the royal Messiah is destined for far greater things than merely the overthrow of Herod: he will, in fact, be the eschatological Shepherd of God's people Israel (2:6).
Now it is striking that, following 2:6, Matthew never once refers to Jesus in Chapter 2 as "king" or "ruler." Instead, he refers to him consistently as "the child" and repeatedly employs the expression "the child and [with] his mother” (2:8-9, 11, 13-14, 20-21). The remarkable thing about this latter expression is that it is at once appropriate to the narrative and a means by which Matthew can speak of Jesus without giving the impression that he is the son of Joseph and hence solely the Son of David (1:20, 25) .
On the contrary, in that Matthew makes reference to Jesus and Mary exclusive of Joseph, he recalls the situation of Chapter 1: the virgin Mary gives birth to a son who has been conceived apart from Joseph son of David by the Holy Spirit (1:18, 20, 23) . Thus, it becomes plain that the purpose of the expression “the child and [with] his mother” is to remind the reader that the son of Mary is at the same time the Son of God. Consequently, the term “the child” in Chapter 2 reveals itself to be a surrogate for “Son of God,” and Matthew himself confirms this observation: at 2:15, he breaks his otherwise consistent use throughout 2:7-23 of the expression “the child and [with] his mother” so that none other than God, through the prophet, might call “the child” Jesus “my Son.” In the last analysis, therefore, we see that “the child” whom the Magi come to Bethlehem to “worship” (2:11) as the “King of the Jews” is in fact the “Son of God,” just as “the child” whom Herod plots to kill is no political throne-pretender but the eschatological Shepherd of God’s people who is likewise the “Son of God.”
At the beginning of Chapter 3, Matthew introduces John the Baptist to his story (3:1-12). John is the forerunner of Jesus (3:1-4, 1 1) and he announces, much as in Mark’s Gospel: “He who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry” (3:1 1). Indeed, this Mightier One, predicts John, will visit Israel as one who dispenses salvation and condemnation (3:11-12).
No sooner has John foretold the coming of the Mightier One than Jesus appears at the Jordan river to be baptized by John (3:13). John would “prevent” this, objecting that he has need to be baptized by Jesus (3:14). Jesus overrules John, however, declaring that “it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness” (3:15). Since this “confrontation” between John and Jesus is related only by Matthew, he obviously attaches special importance to it. What purpose does it serve? It shows that Jesus submits to baptism, not because he, like Israel, must repent of sin (3:2, 6), but because he is perfectly obedient to his Father’s will.
The double occurrence of the expression “and behold” at 3:16 and 3:17 indicates that it is these verses that form the climax of the baptismal scene. Following Mark rather closely, Matthew, too, depicts the descent of the Holy Spirit upon Jesus and his resultant empowerment for the messianic ministry he is shortly to begin (3: 16; 4:17). Because Jesus has been conceived by the Spirit, it is ruled out that his empowerment with the Spirit at his baptism should be construed as his initial endowment with the Spirit.
The second major event to occur at the baptism is that the voice calls out from heaven, “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased” (3:17). Once again, this declaration is a composite quotation (cf. Mark 1:11) with the words taken from Genesis 22:2, Psalms 2:7, and Isaiah. 42: 1. They characterize Jesus as the unique Son of God from the house of David whom God has chosen for eschatological ministry in Israel.
In this declaration of the heavenly voice at 3: 17, we have reached the apex, not only of the baptismal pericope, but also of the entire first main part of Matthew’s story (1:1-4:16). In this part, Matthew describes the person and origins of Jesus. The overriding truth he promulgates is that Jesus is the Davidic Messiah, the royal Son of God. He does not state the whole of this truth in 1: 1, the heading of the first main part of his story. For, as something that can be known solely by revelation (16:16-17), this truth must first be proclaimed, not by any character in the story, but only by God.
Accordingly, Matthew alludes to this truth with circumlocutions (1:16, 18, 20), with metaphors (2:8-9, 11, 13-14, 20-21; 3:11), or with a term (“son”) that is susceptible to dual meaning (1:21, 23, 25). He even permits it to sound softly as the word of the Lord spoken through the prophet (1:22-23; 2:15). Still, all remains adumbration until that climactic point following the baptism of Jesus when the voice from heaven proclaims in the presence of John that Jesus is indeed the unique Son of God (3:17).
The pericope on the temptation of Jesus (4:1-11) follows that on the baptism. Let us call attention here to the fact that in this passage, too, Jesus stands forth as the “Son of God” (4:3, 6). By resisting Satan, Jesus Son of God gives further proof of his perfect obedience to the will of God.
By way of presenting a summary sketch of the Christology of 1:1-4:16, it is instructive to draw together the contents of several key passages in which Matthew employs a series of related idioms. These idioms are the following: “his people” (1:21), “my people” (2:6), “my Son” (2:15; 3:17), and “the Son of God” (4:3, 6). In combination, the passages containing these idioms cast Jesus in the following light: Jesus, in the line of David (1:21), is the Son of God (2:15; 3:17), i.e., he has his origin in God (1:20) and is the one chosen to shepherd the end-time people of God (2:6); empowered by God for messianic ministry (3:16-17), he proves himself in confrontation with Satan to be perfectly obedient to the will of God (4:1-12); as such a one, he saves his (God’s) people from their sins (1:21). Although there are details still to be added, this sketch captures well Matthew’s basic understanding of Jesus.
Jesus as the Son of Man
Matthew has taken over Son-of-Man references from both the Marcan tradition and Q. But although Q tells of the “earthly activity” and of the “future coming” of Jesus Son of Man, it is silent concerning his “suffering.” Mark, on the other hand, ascribes all three phases of activity to Jesus Son of Man. Structurally, Matthew elaborates the pattern of Mark but, like Q, lays great stress on the parousia of the Son of Man.
To get at the function of the title Son of Man in Matthew’s Gospel, it is helpful to compare it with the way in which he uses the title Son of God. “Son of God” for Matthew is of the nature of a “confessional” title. Although supernatural beings, such as God (3:17; 17:5), Satan (4:3, 6), and demons (8:29), know that Jesus is the Messiah Son of God, such knowledge is beyond the natural capacity of human beings.
To be sure, human beings in Matthew’s story do address Jesus as the Son of God, but it is in the spirit of mockery or blasphemy (26:63; 27:40, 43). To confess Jesus to be the Son of God aright, i.e., in faith, is possible only through the gift of divine revelation (11:25-27; 13:11; 16:16-17; 27:54). To dispel any doubt about this, Matthew brings a passage not found elsewhere in the synoptic traditions. In direct response to Peter’s confession, “You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God!” (16:16), the Matthacan Jesus declares: “… flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven!” (16:17).
Consequently, Son of God functions as a “confessional” title in Matthew’s story in the sense that the only human beings who can utter it aright are those who have been blessed by God with the “eyes of faith” (1 1 :25; 13: 16-17). The truth that this title conveys, namely, that in Jesus God is present among people with his end-time rule (1:23), is inaccessible to the “world,” Jew or Gentile (11:25-27; 13:11).
Once this is understood, we can further understand how it is that Matthew handles Mark’s secret of the divine sonship of Jesus. In Mark’s story, the secret that Jesus is the Son of God remains in force until Jesus dies on the cross (15:39) and is raised (16:6-7) . Indeed, the disciples do not comprehend this secret until they “see” Jesus in Galilee (14:28; 16:6-7). In Mark’s scheme of things, it is this “seeing” of the crucified and resurrected Son of God that belongs, along with other events (3:13-16; 14:58; 15:29, 38), to the founding of the church.
In Matthew’s story, on the other hand, the church is founded by Jesus already during his earthly ministry (16:17-19; 18:15-20). The disciples “see” and “worship” Jesus as the Son of God before he ever dies on the cross (14:33; 16:15-16). Hence, in Matthew’s story the secret of the divine sonship of Jesus, while hidden from Israel and the world, is “given” to the disciples (11:25-27; 13:11, 16-17).
It is against this backdrop that Matthew develops his use of the title Son of Man. In his Gospel as in Mark’s, Jesus is never confessed to be the Son of Man or even addressed as such. Accordingly, Son of Man is not, like Son of God, a confessional title. On the contrary, it is what may be termed a “public” title. Indeed, the groundwork for treating it as such is present already in Mark (cf. esp. 2:6, 10, 24, 28). But in what sense is Son of Man a “public” title? In the sense that it is the title by which the Matthaean Jesus refers to himself as he interacts with the “world,” both Israel and the Gentiles.
Thus, the title Son of Man occurs on the lips of the Matthaean Jesus in all of the following contexts: when he makes reference to himself in the audience of the Jewish crowds or of his opponents during his public ministry to Israel;° when he tells his disciples, in sayings like the passion predictions, about the suffering God has ordained that Judas, the Israelite leaders, and Gentiles should inflict upon him; when he points to himself, in contrast to the “rulers of the Gentiles” and the “great men” of the world, as the model of self-sacrificial service his disciples are to emulate in their own lives in the world (20:25-28) ; when he describes himself following Easter as the Exalted One who will reign over the world and raise up in it sons of the kingdom (13:37-38); and when he sketches for the disciples his future return in glory as Judge of all the nations of the world.
One passage that indicates particularly well how Matthew works with the title of Son of Man is 16:13-20 (cf. also 8:19-22; 13:3738; 26:20-25). Here Jesus asks with a view to the public, “Who do men say that the Son of Man is?” (16:13) . But with a view to his disciples he asks, “Who do you say that I am [ = the Son of God]?” (16:15-16). The thing to observe is that whereas “Son of Man” is made to correlate with “men,” “I” (“Son of God”) is made to correlate with the disciples. If Jesus stands before the world as the Son of Man, he is known and confessed by his disciples (and church) to be the Son of God. if Son of Man is a “public” title, Son of God is a “confessional” title.
Does this mean, then, that Matthew has two Christological “lines” running through his Gospel which nowhere meet? No, for there is one point at which the two lines can be seen to converge: at the parousia. Mark hints of this already in his presentation (cf. 8:38), and Matthew picks up on this and develops it. In his pericope on the last judgment (25:31-46), Matthew plainly assimilates the figure of the future Son of Man to the figure of the Messiah Son of God.
For example, if the Messiah Son of God is a royal figure, so is the future Son of Man, for Matthew terms him the “King” (25:34, 40). If the Messiah Son of God is the agent of God’s eschatological kingdom (4:17; 11:2-5, 25-27; 12:28), so is the future Son of Man (7:21-23; 16:27-28). If the Messiah Son of God knows God as “my Father” (11:27; 16:17), so does the future Son of Man (25: 34; cf. 16:27). And just as the Messiah Son of God refers to his disciples as “my brothers” (12:48-50; 28:10), so the future Son of Man refers to the righteous at the latter day as “my brothers” (25:40; cf. with 18:6). Clearly, therefore, Matthew desires to show that also at his parousia as the glorious Son of Man, Jesus remains the Son of God.
Matthew’s view, then, is that if Jesus is known by his disciples during his ministry and by his church following Easter as the Messiah, the Son of God, he interacts with the world, first Israel and then the Gentiles, as the Son of Man. At the consummation of the age, however, Jesus will appear visibly as the Judge and Ruler of the universe. At that time, the whole world will see what until then only the eyes of faith had ever been given by God to perceive: that in Jesus, God is present with his end-time rule. Consequently, at the parousia both the church and the world will behold Jesus in all the majesty of God as the Son of Man. Yet, even as he appears in splendor as the Son of Man, Jesus remains the Son of God, the King through whom God exercises his rule.